Who did Moses See on Mount Sina, God or Angel?

The truth which nobody is prepared to believe is that Moses did not actually see God. Here is the explanation. Issues bothering on the old and new testament of the bible, particularly on the idea of the words, God, Lord and LORD, are designed for the revelations of the new testament. These three  words were used by Moses to attribute to the almighty at different parts of the scriptures, but not all were actually the Almighty particularized. This same idea goes the far to reexamine what we sometimes seem to mean when we answer calls from unknown voices with the same reference as, "My Lord..." The fact remains that, at any point we feel a strange aura or awe so captivating, particularly on positive religious view, we often submissively say the LORD has spoken. This was the issue with Moses. Let's examine the scriptures for all this.

One beautiful allegorical contrast that will help you understand this Moses is found with the event in Exodus 16:15. Here, Moses clearly told the children of Israel that the manna was sent to them by the "LORD". But when you come to John 6: 31 & 32, Jesus told us that the bread did not come from heaven. Here, the central message is "manna" in the form of "bread". The first was symbolically referential to the second which speaks of Christ the giver of eternal life; not the manna eaten and one still died. Now, who did Moses see?

Speaking in Acts 7:30, Stephen stated that it was one same angel of the Lord that spoke to Moses in the Old Testament and guided Israel through the wilderness. 

Acts 7:30, "And after forty years had passed, an angel, appeared to Him/Moses in the wilderness of Mount Sinai, in the flame of a burning thorn bush." In this verse notice the word "an" is used meaning, "an angel" appeared etc.

Later down page, at verse 38, Stephen clarified that the same angel was he who had dwell with them in the wilderness; and that he was the same angel who handed the commandment to Moses at mount Sina. Recalling that both Exodus 33: 11 and Numbers 12:8 all bear witness that, even God himself related that he spoke to Moses one on one like unto friends, does it mean that Stephen was speaking here with mincing of words, I think not. Naturally, theologists agreed to the fact that, although "Lord" could be used as a reference to other supreme beings other than God; they all agreed that the "LORD", as used in the OT was a reference to the almighty himself. But I don't think that Moses had used these words as denotations of specification. He rather used both words as references to the almighty, where in the actual sense it was the angel of the LORD that he had seen. Who then was this angel?

The angel of the LORD was the replica of God. He was God appearing in the form of an angel. We know this because, that same angel embodied the nature and attribute of the almighty. For there are instances in the scriptures where he addressed himself directly as the most high. This very angel only comes whenever God wanted to have a direct contact with men; not as a messenger, but as he who embodies the message. And in relating the massage, this angel had the capacity to speak for God directly, not referentially. We can see a case like that in Genesis 6:17 where he said directly this; "I, even I...". It becomes easier to understand who the angel was, for in many of his appearances, he had addressed himself. Consider the following passages:

Gen 16:7-13, V13 makes clear that Harar was speaking to God.

Gen 22:11-17, V16 and 17 declares that it is God who is speaking.

Gen 32:24-30, V28 & 30 makes clear that Jacob was wrestling with God.

Gen 48:16, The Angel is called the Redeemer which can only be God according to Isaiah 43:3, 11, 45:17, 21

Ex 3:2-6, V 4-6 makes clear that Moses was in the presence of God.

Num 22:22-35, Several times (v22, 26) it is declared to be God and Balaam bowed down to worship God, a veneration forbidden to a mere angel (Rev 22:8, etc)

Judg 2:1-4, The angel here is the ONE who brought Israel out of Egypt

Judg 6:11-23, Gideon realises that he has seen God face to face and calls Him "Lord God" (v22)

Judg 13:3-23, Manoah realises that He has seen God (v22)

It should however be stressed that, not every instances of "Angel of the Lord" that refers to the almighty. For example, such occasions as found in Luke 1:11, 2:9, Matt 28:2, Acts 5:19, Isa 37:36, etc. There is a similar phenomenon with such phrase as "Angel of God", as found in Gen 6:13, 8:15, 9:8, 17, 15:13, 17:3, 4, 21:12, 16-21, 35:1, 10, Ex 4:3-8, 6:2, 23:20, 21, Deut 1:6, 1 Kings 12:22. These go the far to clarify God's statement to Moses that no man sees him and lives. Even Christ said that no man has known the father except the son (Matt. 11:27); and also that no man has seen the father except the son (John 6:46). Therefore, what Moses, Abraham and all of the prophets had seen were angels, not God directly as their words may have stressed.

Four attributes specifically denote this special angel for our understanding.  One prominent position he readily asserted of himself is this, "I am the LORD"; not reportedly, but directly. When he appeared to  Moses with burning flames he made this same declaration. This declaration is the reserve of the almighty; any angel that makes such a declaration directly is unequivocally God himself appearing in the form of the angel of the lord. The four features of this angel are:

(1) He swares only in his own name. Other angels can sware "in the name of the living God, almighty, the lord of host etc. but the angel of the LORD swares in his name. In Genesis 22:11 the angel of the Lord calls out from heaven to Abraham. The angel of the Lord calls out from heaven a second time at Genesis 22:15. What does he say to Abraham? Genesis 22:16, "By Myself I have sworn, declares the Lord, because you have done this thing, and not withheld you son, your only son." Verse 17, "indeed I will greatly multiply your seed as the stars of the heavens, and as the sand which is on the seashore." The point is the fact that an angel or any angel cannot swear an oath on behalf of somebody else, let along for God.

(2) In this angel God sends himself. The metaphor of God sending himself is concretized in the fact that the angel of the LORD was in the OT the personality of God himself carrying the message that can best be disseminated by himself. There are cases where the scripture remarked of this angel saying that, he, even the LORD sent him. We find such references in Isaiah 48:16 and Zacharia 2:9 & 11.

(3) God speaks directly withing this angel. The angel of the lord served as the bringer of God's presence, and in such enabling environment, God himself speaks within the angel. To call moses' attention, this same angel appeared with a remarkable flame on the bush. And as Moses turned towards the flame, God spoke directly within the flaming angel. And because, Moses was used to the word, "Lord" and the performances of magic in the palace of pharaoh, God had to be specific with him by clarifying about his person. See this in Genesis 3:2-7.

(4) The fourth attribute is that this particular angel never went to war. When Moses had shown all the signs known to him and Pharaoh refused to let the Israelites go, God had to send an angel whom Moses described as the Lord. Also in the reign of Hezekiah, Assyria waged war against Judah and an angel was sent to fight for them in 2 Chronicle 32:20-21.

What should be taken home in all these is that both angels and people/prophets represent God because the Jews have what they call the "Shaliah" principle. This means that a person/agent/emissary/envoy can represent a "principal" concerning the affairs of business etc. However, the shaliach remains a subordinate and he cannot swear oaths on behalf of the principal. One last point! "The" angel of the Lord never appears in the New Testament as the angel of the Lord. Why? The reason is simple; Christ is the personification of this variant angel of old personifying the supreme deity, God in various ramifications.

Angel of the LORD in OT is different from angel of the Lord in NT, and was the pre-incarnate Son of God, in OT. No man has ever seen the Father, God. God has always manifested himself in His Son and the Power of His Spirit. Jesus said, “Before Abraham was, ‘I AM’ “. In Acts 7 Stephen told the Jews, Jesus was there all along as who they referred to as “Angel”. Now He has come in human flesh to complete Redemption plan. Moses himself did say, "Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one.” ‭‭Deuteronomy‬ ‭6:4‬. From this point, it can be understood that the plan of redemption began immediately after the fall of man. Paul made this clear that the message of salvation was first preached by the angel. Then to unify his message, Paul said in 2 Corinthians 5:19 that, "To wit, God wa  in Christ reconciling the world unto himself...". He did not say, "with, by, through or because of Christ"; rather he said, God was IN Christ...".